The rules state in 6.5.5.2:
"If ten times the dividend per share equals or exceeds the current share price, the price marker is moved one square to the right...."
So, basically, when a Public companie's operating revenue exceeds its share price, the the marker is moved one square to the right. The question we have is this:
Does this happen whatever the company does with its revenue? Here are the choices, (and I know several of these might be right):
1) The company pays out 100%, so its stock price moves one to the right. Its revenue exceeds the starting stock price, so the stock price moves one to the right again, thus getting 2 bumps in one round.
***OR***
2) The company pays out 100%, so its stock price moves one to the right. Its revenue exceeds the stock price, but the stock price goes up only due to the 100% payout, and the bump from the high revenue is lost.
3) The company keeps all of its revenue, so its stock price is moved one to the left. However, Its revenue exceeds the starting stock price, so the stock price moves one to the right, thus ending up where it started.
***OR***
4) The company keeps all of its revenue, so its stock price is moved one to the left. Its revenue is great, but the bump is lost due to the company keeping the revenue.
...the same 2 choices can be put forth for the 50/50 split of revenue.
In a nutshell, will a company receive the right bump on its stock for generating revenue greater then its stock price IN ADDITION to the stock price movement of how it disperses its revenue? i.e., as in the above example, would it be possible to get 2 bumps in one turn?
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